A friend of mine sold his apartment in Feb 2012, he paid all taxes due before moving back to the UK
But apparently he did not do so.
I believe Bobaol is absolutely correct, however, just like in the UK it has been the ‘normal practice’ with the properties I ( and my son also) have bought and sold for the bill to be proportioned for the period each has owned the property.
If the solicitor failed to make that stipulation in the contract then I guess the seller in this case is responsible.
(I have said several times I have never used a solicitor in our transactions, so we have never relied on one to get it right)
I don’t know if you are aware that the seller is also responsible for paying the plus valir tax, unless that too has been modified in the contract.
This message was last edited by johnzx on 21/02/2013.
This message was last edited by johnzx on 21/02/2013.