I'm posting here in the hopes that someone can help clarify Spanish contract law.
We're getting married in Spain next year, and signed a contract with a venue in June this year. The contract explicitly states what areas we may use for the reception (all), that we may hire a caterer, that tables and chairs etc are included, and so forth. In October our wedding planner alerted us to the fact that the venue is now in the process of being converted to a hotel. We immediately contacted the venue, and thsi was confirmed. We were sent a new contract stating that:
- we may not use all areas but only a former stable situated off the premises (this radically changes the agreed upon plans for an outdoor reception and dance, also it's clearly not worth the EUR 7000 they charge to spend the evening in a windowless building)
- or we may hire all 25 hotel rooms for three nights, thus enabling us to use the entire venue as agreed. The rooms are charged at EUR 800/night, so needless to say this changes everything.
We are obviously upset, as they kept this information from us for four months which in my opinion is culpable behaviour. We are now unable to get a similar venue for our date, and we are not going to be able to recuperate any of the expenses already incurred (deposits for photography and florist, wedding planner fees).
Now to my question: Isn't the initial contract still binding? It was signed in due order, and we have an email stating that the only changes coming up would be a 5% price increase. What would you advise?
Kind regards from a desperate bride to be (and lawyer)