22 Nov 2006 1:21 PM:
How does the dual taxation system work between Spain and say the UK?
If a client is in the UK 40% tax bracket and pays 35% Spanish CGT (or the proposed 18%) or 5% Spanish retention (proposed 3%) are they then all paid up tax wise, or if the money is taken back to the UK are they subject to the balance of their 40% UK tax bracket?
Also, which official body is responsible for overseeing whether profits made are re-invested into further property, thus avoiding CGT?
It would be really helpfull if replies to this were 'official' and not hearsay, or 'chinese whispers'
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