09 Feb 2018 6:27 PM:
Not sure if this is a problem or not. No doubt is is!
My father, and his two children (me being one) and his deceased wife are on the deeds to our Spanish villa. We all live in the Uk.
She died 3 years ago and without a UK will so all her assets went to my father by default....but nothing was done about her share of the property in Spain.
My father now wishes to give his share of the property to us (his children) in the most tax efficient way, but of course we still have a deceased owner.
Could this be expensive to rectify or does my stepmothers share just automatically become my fathers as it would in the UK?
Appreciate any guidance.
Thanks
Thread:
Stepmother died 3 years ago but still on villa deeds. Tax implication? Fine?
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