22 Sep 2012 11:43 PM:
I will refrain from describing your contribution as nonsense - being terrified of name-calling women.
Aw - It was nothing personal. I only described it as nonsense because it deserved nothing less. It doesn't make you less of a person - man up .
Also, I am not a name-calling woman. So, there is no need to be terrified. However, being so ignorant about the basic facts of a subject that you presume to debate is far more frightening -and is probably indicative the general level of mythology, swallowed by the uninformed, that got us here.
Simply point out that the opportunity to buy may be created by looser credit but it is still the resultant demand which creates the market.
You still don't get it. There is always a demand for housing better than that currently occupied - but it can't ever be satisifed without finances. Otherwise, if demand alone was necessary, as you incorrectly claim, countries with the largest populations (China, India etc.) would have the highest property prices because, by definition, their demand is greater than countries with smaller populations. That is clearly not the case.
The demand leading to higher prices can only come from more funds being available. You can have demand up the ying-yang but without the funds to satisfy that demand, prices won't - can't - move. As most people's readily available cash is limited, credit has become a substitute and it is that credit (in lieu of extra cash) which allows for higher bids. It is then unrestrained credit that leads to bubbles.
To believe otherwise requires an explanation of how the price rose in my example without ANY extra demand - something you have avoided addressing. But here is the example again:
Only two people bidding on a house. Buyer 'a' can only raise a £75K mortgage, Buyer 'b' can raise £80K. The house is on offer for £75K. Buyer 'a' offers the full amount but is outbid by Buyer 'b' who offers £80K. Upon returning home, Buyer 'a' receives a call from his bank informing him that they will increase his loan to £85K. He submits a new offer for that amount which is accepted.
I realise it's only an example but it is a very real world example which occurred thousands of times during this bubble. So, how did the price of the property rise from £75K to £85K when there was no additional demand? Something which you claim can't happen.
How can any argument put forth, that doesn't recognise the only element that changed in that transaction (i.e. the increased credit line) as being the cause of the price rise, be described as anything other than 'nonsense'?
I realize this may not accord with popular theory or the economic gobbledeygook of journalists but the principle was established long before the eighties. I tend to use more established sources for my economic theory than journalists whether they be populist, liberal or heavyweight.
Yeah, well, nice try - but by what principle is your conspicuously, unsubstantiated gobbleydegook any more valid? Which of your claimed, but unproven, principles were established long before the eighties and by which 'established' sources? Inquisitive minds want to know. Simply making unfounded claims of 'principles' and deriding journalists and respected Institutes whose opinions don't support yours in no way adds legitimacy to your unproven claims.
The summaries you quote describe how the credit boom developed and don't change the basic premise that more buyers than seller makes for higher prices while more sellers than buyers has the reverse effect.
More nonsense. First, it doesn't just describe how the credit boom developed but concludes that it was responsible for the property price bubble. It's hardly surprising that you would choose to ignore that finding but apart from you, I've never heard anyone conclude anything else.
Second, it is not a basic premise that there can be more Buyers than Sellers, At best, it's a woefully flawed premise and is probably more aptly described as gobbledeygook.
Every transaction has one of each - never more - never less. Whilst there can be Buyers who are willing to pay more or less for an item and/or Sellers who are willing to demand more or accept less for their inventory, there can never be more of one than the other and for a transaction to occur. And it is not just the willingness of the Buyers to pay more or the demands of the Sellers that leads to higher prices. The Buyers need the 'means' to pay higher prices. Without it, the Sellers can demand all they want, the price can't rise.
Now I really must leave this discussion as a nice bottle of wine has my name on it and that#s much more important than playing wordgames with the boys and girls on a Saturday evening.
.... but not more important than to be condescending and patronising without merit or even a hint of substance to support your manufactured claims of supposed 'principles' - marvellous!
This message was last edited by JD01 on 22/09/2012.
Thread:
Is Now The Time to Buy or Sell ??
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