I’m out of sync here! So if you could bear with me I’ll address the previous points first, which focus on Spain.
Apologies TJ, upon re-reading “What i can say is that if you bought the property for a home and you love and enjoy Spain AND you can sensibly afford it, then i think little has changed. “ I realise I misread the detail of your post. I mistakenly thought you were referring to the fact that little had changed with relation to purchasing another property and I was concerned by the ongoing lack of consumer protection within the existing Spanish justice system.
As for the suggestion that the Banks are unable to fund the monies owed from their illegal activities (non provision of BG's, refusal to meet valid BG claims, etc) , now we come to the crux of the matter, as how does the Spanish system treat those successful first instance judgements, and the attempts thereafter to embargo assets? Are these not classed as a form of ownership of rights? Are the Banks not obliged to recoup monies to meet the judgements at that point in time and ensure that they do not systematically deny consumer rights by delaying the process of law, thereby leaving the consumer unprotected? The “assets” whether they be liquid or otherwise at that point in time should be protected by law, but we all know that this is where the problem lies. There appears to be systemic failure to enforce legislation in Spain.
Who ultimately takes ownership of these assets when bailing out the Banks some years after the judgements have been made but not enforced? The Spanish Government? The Government that negligently, (or incompetently), delayed implementation of the law when liquid assets and/or real estate assets were available to meet these judgements, thus compromising the innocent party? The Government that continues to turn a blind eye to the non enforcement of laws in place to protect the consumer? If so, then the Government has effectively failed in the duty to protect citizens according to the laws of the land, and in some eyes this can be considered as theft of assets could it not???Hence the immediate requirement for a fair compensation structure to be in place.
The European Parliament stipulates "In any event, the purchase of a real property in Spain is carried out in accordance with national laws and any alleged transgression of that law has to be resolved before the competent Spanish judicial authorities " "The proper means of seeking redress is through the Spanish courts and, ultimately, once all domestic remedies have been exhausted, the Court of Human Rights at Strasbourg "
THE COMPETENT SPANISH JUDICIAL AUTHORITIES!
This needs to be challenged in light of the video (2 hours 45 mins ) that has come from Brussels seminar relating to property rights and chaired by Diana Wallis MEP who is vice president of the European Parliament (http://www.alde.eu/event-seminar/events-details/article/eu-property-rights-and-wrongs-37447/) , during which the EU commission refers to "member state competence" and Mr A Walker QC makes reference to political pressure on enforcement timeframes.
Isn't the truth that there should not be "hopeless cases" with "victims" but protection according to the laws of the land within a member state? Doesn’t this lie at the heart of any civilised financial structure?
For those wishing to follow up on this point, may I suggest you direct your queries to diana.wallis@europarl.europa.eu
Now to your more recent posting and a higher level concern. With relation to the UK, do you see the UK Government failing to protect Bank savings, or are these now ring-fenced under the existing system of UK government-backed Financial Services Compensation Scheme (FSCS), albeit with limits of £85,000 per account? Is the inference that even this system is under threat given the euro crisis?.